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AskSQLTeam
Ask SQLTeam Question
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 Posted - 2005-08-02 : 10:49:23
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| Francois writes "Hi,Is it possible to grant execute permissions for stored procedures, without giving the necessary permissions to the underlining objects. And if it is, how does one do it without changing all the stored procs already in place.Any help would be appreciated.Thanks,F." |
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Kristen
Test
22859 Posts |
Posted - 2005-08-02 : 11:04:25
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| Welcome to SQL Team Francois!Yes. User_A can have EXECUTE permission to SP_X, and NO permissions to the tables that SP_X uses. The effective permissions will be those of the user who created the SProc SP_XSorry, I don't understand your second questionKristen |
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Procedure permissions