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priyaram
Yak Posting Veteran
82 Posts |
 Posted - 2007-03-21 : 13:13:53
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| one of the developer has a stored procedure that selects a data from one table and update to another table.i moved that stored procedure from development server to production server.i gave that developer grant execute permission for that stored procedure.since that stored procedure selects and do update the tables, do i need to give update permission to that developer to that underlying tables also.thanks |
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nr
SQLTeam MVY
12543 Posts |
Posted - 2007-03-21 : 13:48:12
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| Not if the owner of the sp is the owner of the tables.Or schema owner or whatever it is now.Anyway - if everything is dbo and in the same database then you just need to give execute permission on the sp.==========================================Cursors are useful if you don't know sql.DTS can be used in a similar way.Beer is not cold and it isn't fizzy. |
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stored procedure permission